A 70-year-old male was admitted with chest tightness and precordial pain for 2 hours. Physical examination: altered mental status, profuse sweating, BP 60/40 mmHg, HR 112 bpm, blood glucose 16.1 mmol/L, ECG showed lateral wall myocardial infarction. History of hypertension (HTN), no history of diabetes mellitus (DM). Which of the following is the correct management for elevated blood glucose?